29-03-2010, 10:16 PM
Hello...I just joined this forum and it's quite interesting to say the least. I have a theory about the JFK assassination, and I have thought about this for quite awhile. I have heard the assassination described as a "coup d' etat", and I agree with this assessment. However, one of the main tenets of a coup is that someone has to benefit...not just something, as in the CIA, oil barons, or something like that. Excluding MLK and Malcolm X, there were three major political assassinations or attempted assassinations from the period 1963-1972. These were JFK, RFK, and George Wallace. All three of these men shared something...and someone...in common. All three had either run in or were running in presidential elections involving Richard M. Nixon. Remember, if Nixon hadn't lost the California governor's race in 1962, he would have run for President in 1964. Nixon also would have lost in 1968 if RFK hadn't been killed. And as for Wallace...had he run in 1972, Nixon would most likely have lost because Wallace would have split his vote in half, much like Ross Perot did to George Bush I in 1992. Remember also that H. R. Haldeman, in his book The Ends Of Power, stated that anytime the phrase "Bay of Pigs" was used during the Watergate tapes, it was actually code for the JFK assassination...which means that he was using the asssassination as leverage to blackmail the CIA into going along with the Watergate cover-up. If there were no conspiracy, and the CIA were not involved, how could Nixon use JFK as leverage against them ? And furthermore, how would Nixon know to use JFK as leverage unless he was somehow part of the conspiracy ? Just a thought...