07-10-2014, 04:01 AM
I notice a problem with another of the main suspects in the Shakespeare Authorship Question: William Stanley, who died in 1642, 3 years before Lanier. Again, "Shakespeare" dies in 1616, and Stanley doesn't write another play for 26 years? I am beginning to suspect that whether this guy Shaxpere could even read or write or not, he may have had something to do with the reason for writing the plays, no matter who actually did so. After all, he was a shareholder in the Globe Theater. Could it be that he stopped paying for the writing of the plays? Of course, if Marlowe was the actual author, he could very well have died at about the same time. Henry Paine Stokes places the writing of Henry VIII at 1613, so Marlowe himself would have stopped writing shortly thereafter. 1613 is just an estimate, of course, so one might begin to suspect that Shaxpere's retirement sometime between 1611 and 1613 actually had something to do with Marlowe's death, his source of plays having dried up. But note that the Globe Theatre burned on July 21, 1613.
__________
"And when I'm tired of the program, when it's taken its toll,
I can press a button and change the channel by remote control.
It's just another movie, another song and dance,
Another poor sucker who never had a chance.
It's just another captain goin' down with the ship,
Just another jerk takin' pride in his work."
--Timbuk3
"And when I'm tired of the program, when it's taken its toll,
I can press a button and change the channel by remote control.
It's just another movie, another song and dance,
Another poor sucker who never had a chance.
It's just another captain goin' down with the ship,
Just another jerk takin' pride in his work."
--Timbuk3