The Magic Tonsillectomy or Armstrong's Voodoo Science?

[Greg R Parker]

My very first post here in the JFK section was a valid, polite and sensible request for David Josephs to delineate the meaning of his rather odd term "false minutia" and to explain how "minutia" could be left out - or else exactly how it might fit - in the type of "detailed discussion and analysis of H & L evidence" that he was calling for in that particular thread. I can say in all honesty, all I wanted was to know what his limits were so that I could give him that very discussion he wanted.

That post however, was immediately categorized by Jim Hargrove as a "dramatic debut" and an attempt to start a fight.

I admit I don't take the type of shit that's been thrown lying down and have hurled some back... but since attempting to discuss various claims made by Armstrong, I have been told I am a bully (really? One person is able to bully a mob as tight as the James gang?), that I have not produced any evidence, only opinion, that I am an idiot and, that I am part of some cointelpro operation.

I have also been taken to task by a mod - not for anything near as shitty as any of the above - but for daring to point out that a moronic statement was... well... moronic.

I have also had Don Jeffries doing what he does best - miss-characterizing my posts and then seeing a real voice of reason (instead of Jeffries piss-poor impersonation of one), Anthony Thorne, attacked in the usual vile and cowardly manner DJ seems to relish producing.

Meanwhile the only thing cutting through all the bluster from the "other side" has been their occasional laughable attempts to claim some sort of victory. It seems to happen in every other post. The reality is that the ONLY piece of worthwhile information to come from "the other side" has been DJ's belated find that Nut Country lived up to it's name by accrediting these medical charlatans from the early 20th century.

Good man DJ, you got me.

I was relying on this story from '72 and the line saying osteopaths are "no longer being blackballed by the AMA..."
http://news.google.com/newspapers?id=0Qp...%2C1779246

But it is not the end of the story.

This from a pediatrics website

What is a Pediatric Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine (DO)?
A pediatric doctor of osteopathic medicine (DO) is a pediatrician who has studied medicine at an osteopathic medical school and has gone on to complete a pediatric residency.
http://www.healthychildren.org/English/f...icine.aspx

So Philben had to complete a residency in order to be called a Pediatric Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine.

According his obit, he left Dallas in 1939 or thereabouts in order to complete his residency at the Philadelphia College of Osteopathy. His obit continues that he did not return to Dallas until 1947 - 2 years AFTER the alleged surgery.
http://www.findagrave.com/cgi-bin/fg.cgi...d=24833435

This is what the obit actually says, Greg:

"He then moved to Pennsylvania and completed his residency at the Philadelphia College of Osteopathy. He returned to Dallas and founded the Grove Medical Center Clinic in 1947."

The obit does not say he returned to Dallas in 1947, it says he founded the Grove Medical Centre Clinic in 1947. If his residency began in 1939, and ended in 1947, that would mean he served an eight year residency. Most doctors do not even go to medical school for that long, and residencies are shorter than medical school time. In fact, here in Canada, most doctors can go to medical school AND complete a residency in seven years. But then, I suppose you'll tell us next that Canadian doctors are not qualified to practice, either.

No Bob. It does not say that.

This would say that. "He returned to Dallas, and founded the Grove Medical Center Clinic in 1947." or "He returned to Dallas where he founded the Grove Medical Center Clinic in 1947." or "He returned to Dallas and later founded the Grove Medical Center Clinic in 1947."

As written, it indicates the two things happened at about the same time.

What the obit doesn't say is that he finished his residency in 1947. You seriously believe he could not have finished it earlier and hung out in Philadelphia for a while?

You are a fool, Greg, and a childish one at that.

He also could have finished his residency in three years by either 1942 or 1943, and returned to practice in Dallas in 1943.

Have you ever heard of a typical residency that took longer than 3 years to complete? Might he not have to return to Dallas in 1943 to earn a living? Is there any record of him continuing to live in Philadelphia or working in Philadelphia, following his internship?

We need proof, Greg, not your imagination.

Perhaps you should return to your forum where wild conjecture is accepted as proof.

Someone's got their knickers all twisted because they cannot discern the proper meaning in a simple sentence.

See this is what happens with inbreeding, Billy-Bob.